I was working on proving that a statement ...

$ p \to \lnot(\lnot q \land (p \to q))$

... is a tautology using logical equivalences and wound up at this step:

$ T \lor F $

I'm unsure if the output would be true or not, or if its too ambiguous to get an answer from this. Thanks!


The $\lor$ is true iff at least one of the disjuncts is true. So, $T \lor F = T$


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