Lets say we have a point that is a part of 3d space, but fixed to the $z=1$ plane. That is, we have, in column matrix form, assuming the canonical $\mathbb R^3$ basis:
$$ v_0 = \begin{bmatrix} x\\ y\\ 1\\ \end{bmatrix} \ $$
To translate this point, we can use an affine transformation. For instance, to translate this point by $(T_x, T_y) = (1, 1)$, we could left multiply $v_0$ by a matrix generated using this translation vector. Let's call it $T$.
$$ v_1 = T v_0 = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 & 1\\ 0 & 1 & 1\\ 0 & 0 & 1\\ \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} x\\ y\\ 1\\ \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} x + 1\\ y + 1\\ 1\\ \end{bmatrix} \ $$
My issue is that the matrix $T$ can be interpreted as a change of basis matrix, and this operation is clashing with my knowledge of what that means.
Our original vector $v_0$ was defined based on the canonical basis, as I mentioned. However, by left multiplying $T$ by $v_0$, what we are conceptually doing, in my understanding, is calculating what the matching coefficients of the linear combination on our original canonical base are of a linear combination of a different basis, the components of which are the set of vectors that form the columns of $T$.
Performing this operation assumes that the original coordinates no longer describe a linear combination of the original canonical basis, but they are now describing one of the vectors present on the columns of $T$.
Could you explain what is the reasoning for this sudden change of basis of the coordinates, and why does it end up correctly describing a translation in our original basis? Thanks.