If $p$ is a prime and $(a,b)=1$ then there is a $k \in \{ 0, \dots, p-1 \}$ s.t. $p | (a-kb)$? I'm working on a problem regarding $p$-adic numbers. I boiled down the problem to an elementary problem in number theory. I'm wondering if the following statement is true:

If $p$ is a prime and $a,b \in \mathbb{Z}$ with $(a,b)=1$ then there is a $k \in \{ 0, \dots, p-1 \}$ s.t. $p$ devides $a-kb$.

 A: $p\mid a-kb$ means that $a-kb=0\mod p$. In other words, $a=kb\mod p$. $a\mod p$ is a residue class and one of $\{0,\dots, p-1\}$. The same is true for $k$ and $b$ and $kb$. So your question reduces to asking whether given any $a,b\in \{0,\dots, p-1\}$ there is some $k\in\{0,\dots,p-1\}$ such that $a=bk$. But this is true and the $k$ is even uniquely determined. Why? Because $\mathbb Z_p$ forms a group!
$\mathbb Z_p$ being a group means that there exists an inverse $b^{-1}\in\mathbb Z_p$ and you can define $k=ab^{-1}\in\mathbb Z_p$.
Note that you need $(a,b)=1$ only to assure that $b\neq 0$.
A: Since you want to solve $a \equiv kb \;(mod \; p)$ and because $p$ is prime, then 
$\frac{\mathbb{Z}}{p\mathbb{Z}}$ is a field, and so any element has and inverse except the $0$. So then there always exist that $k$ unless $b \equiv 0 \; (mod \; p)$
A: 
Case $1$: $a\equiv b \mod p$

$$a\equiv b \mod p\iff a-b\equiv 0 \mod p\iff k=1$$ and we're done!

Case $2$: $a\not\equiv b \mod p$

This implies that $a, b$ have different residue classes $\mod p$. Since the set $\{0,..., p-1\}$ includes all possible residues $\mod p$, you can always choose one such that $$a-kb\equiv 0 \mod p \iff p\mid a-kb$$
