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I am looking for a reference or a proof which shows that $P(\tau_0^Y<\infty)=1$ for an ornstein uhlenbeck process $Y$ given by $$ dY(t)=-\frac{1}{2}\alpha Y(t)dt+ \frac{1}{2} \sigma dW(t),Y(0)=y>0 $$ where $\sigma,\alpha>0$ and $\tau_0^Y=\inf\{t \ge 0:Y(t)=0\}$

I tried to explicitly solve for $Y(t)$ using Ito's lemma from which I could conclude that $Y(t)$ is normally distributed(I explicitly computed the mean and the variance). But I couldn't use it to prove that the process hits zero in finite time with probability one. Any hints on how could I show this?

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    $\begingroup$ Can't you use a similar reasoning as in this answer, i.e. write $(Y_t)_{t \geq 0}$ as a time-changed Brownian motion and then use that a Brownian motion hits any point $x \in \mathbb{R}$ with probability $1$ (infinitely often)? $\endgroup$
    – saz
    Commented Feb 5, 2019 at 17:49
  • $\begingroup$ @saz I am going to try to adapt this proof . Thank you $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 5, 2019 at 18:02

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Since you're asking for a reference: Example 9.12' (a) in the book "Asymptotic Statistics with a View to Stochastic Processes" by R. Höpfner shows that $Y$ is positive Harris-recurrent and that its unique invariant law is Gaussian (in particular its support is the entire space $\mathbb R$). Together with the continuity of its trajectories, applying the definition of Harris recurrence implies that for any starting point $Y(0)=y\in\mathbb R$ and any $x\in\mathbb R$ with $x\ge y$ we have $$ P(\tau_x^Y<\infty)\ge P\left(\int_0^\infty 1_{[x,\infty)}(Y(t))dt=\infty\right) =1. $$ The case $x\le y$ is dealt with in the same way.

The ninth chapter of the mentioned book is a nice survey of the basics about Harris recurrence and how to check it for one-dimensional diffusions.

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  • $\begingroup$ Can you explain how did you get the probabilistic inequality. i was trying to show that the set is contained in the other but was unsuccessful $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 28, 2019 at 9:35
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    $\begingroup$ We have $\{\tau_x^Y=\infty\}\subset\{1_{[x,\infty)}(Y(t))=0 \text{ for all $t\in[0,\infty)$}\}\subset\{\int_0^\infty1_{[x,\infty)}(Y(t))dt<\infty\}$. Now, take the complement. $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 28, 2019 at 12:12

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