i've looked everywhere I could for an answer to this question but no luck ! If I have $X_1 .... X_n$ random variables that are independent and identically distributed such as ∀ $1 <$ $i$ $<n$, $X_i$ ~ B(n,$\theta$) (binomial distribution)
I know that the likelihood is :
but then it seems kind of hard to calculate as product, I tried to calculate log($p_n$) but then the $x_i$! causes me problems
Can you enlighten me ? what is the max-likelihood of a binomial distribution ?