Let us consider the set of real numbers $ \mathbb{R} $ as a vector space over the set of rationals $ \mathbb{Q} $.
We know that this vector space has a basis known as the Hamel basis. Let the Hamel basis be $ A $.
Now see this post at https://mathblag.wordpress.com/2013/09/01/sums-of-periodic-functions/ > sections "R as a vector space over Q" and "Periodicity of (x,a)". In the section "Periodicity of (x,a)", the article says,
Moreover $ (a,b)=0 $ for distinct $ a,b \in A $.
How is this true? From what I have understood so far is that the notation $ (x, a) $ is just a notation for a rational number as an ordered pair, i.e., $ (x, a) = \frac{x}{a} $ where $ a \ne 0 $. If I am right about this, then the above quoted statement implies that $ (a, b) = (b, a) = 0 $, i.e., $ \frac{a}{b} = \frac{b}{a} = 0 $. Now that cannot be true.
What am I missing? Have I understood the $ (a, b) $ notation incorrectly? Or am I making some other mistake?
Please help me understand how the quoted statement is true.