I suppose this is a question about mathematical convention. In a problem in Introduction to Probability by Bertsekas and Tsitsiklis, they ask the reader to prove an identity. But then their proof is mostly words:
Problem 3.* Prove the identity $$A \cup \Bigg( \bigcap_{n=1}^\infty B_n \Bigg) = \bigcap_{n=1}^\infty\big(A \cup B_n\big).$$
Solution. If $x$ belongs to the set on the left, there are two possibilities. Either $x \in A$, in which case $x$ belongs to all of the sets $A \cup B_n$, and therefore belongs to the set on the right. Alternatively, $x$ belongs to all of the sets $B_n$ in which case, it belongs to all of the sets $A \cup B_n$, and therefore again belongs to the set on the right.
Conversely, if $x$ belongs to the set on the right, then it belongs to $A \cup B_n$ for all $n$. If $x$ belongs to $A$, then it belongs to the set on the left. Otherwise, $x$ must belong to every set $B_n$ and again belongs to the set on the left.
In mathematics, why is this allowed? Can you say that this is more correct a proof that is, "Oh, it's obvious!" or "Just keep distributing $A$ over and over ad nauseum and you get the term on the right"?
I'm not trolling. I'm genuinely curious as to how thorough one must be when using words as proof.