Is $ \sinh(x) \sinh(y)=\sinh(y) \sinh(x)$? While evaluation a question on multiple integral I have got answer $4\sinh(3) \sinh(1)$.

It was a multiple choice questions with

a) $4\sinh(3) \sinh(1)$

b) $4\sinh(1)\sinh(3)$

I think both a and b option are correct since $\sinh(1)$ ,$\sinh(3)$ is multiplication of numbers it should commute but in answer option a is mention .

Am I correct both option is correct ? If wrong please explain why ?

  • 2
    $\begingroup$ You're correct. Multiplication is commutative. The question was badly designed. $\endgroup$ – Michael Lugo Jan 3 at 15:10
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Either that or it was a misprint or sejy misread it. From the information in the question, we cannot determine which of these three possibilities holds. $\endgroup$ – GEdgar Jan 3 at 15:34

Yes: $\sinh:\mathbb{C}\to \mathbb{C}$ so that $\sinh(x),\sinh(y)\in \mathbb{C}$. Thus, by commutativity of multiplication in $\mathbb{C}$, $\sinh(x)\sinh(y)=\sinh(y)\sinh(x)$ for any $x,y\in \mathbb{C}$.


Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.