So, I have to estimate the value of sin(0,2) with at least 4 correct decimal places by using its Taylor series and the Lagrange error bound, but I am stuck in what I believe is a trivial step.
I understand the following:
$$\sin(x)=\sum_{n=0}^∞(-1)^n\frac{x^{2n+1}}{(2n+1)!}$$
$$f(x)=P_{n}(x) + R_{n}(x)$$ so, $$\sin(0,2)=P_{n}(0,2)+R_{n}(0,2)$$
By having that, I assume that I should find the value for n so that $$f^{(n+1}(x)\leq M$$ where M (I guess?) is 1, the maximum value for $\sin(x)$
Knowing that, My Lagrange error should be:
$$R_n(x)\leq\frac{M(x)^{n+1}}{(n+1)!}$$ so: $$R_n(0,2)\leq\frac{(0,2)^{n+1}}{(n+1)!}\leq 0,0001$$ By checking values for n, I found that for n=3, its value is 0,00006..., and so I chose 3 as the degree of the Taylor polinomial that should give me an error smaller than 0,0001
Now I am stuck at calculating sin(0,2), which I assume it should be like this, where I do not know how to express Rn(x), nor if the n I chose is correct, since: $$\sin(0,2)=\frac{(0,2)^{2n+1}}{(2n+1)!}=\frac{(0,2)^{(2*3)+1}}{((2*3)+1)!}=2.539682539682542*10^{-9}$$ which is nowhere near its "correct" value, which I found that it's best approximated by making n=0: $$\sin(0,2)=\frac{(0,2)^{2n+1}}{(2n+1)!}=\frac{(0,2)}{1!}=0,2$$
If I take n=0, then I do not know how to even start writing Rn(x): $$\sin(0,2)=\frac{(0,2)^{2n+1}}{(2n+1)!}=\frac{(0,2)}{1!}=>0,2-R_n(x)=0,2-what?$$
Any help and corrections are greatly appreciated, I am also unsure if I chose the value for n correctly.