This improper integral comes from a problem of periodic orbit. The integral evaluates one half of the period.
In a special case, the integral is $$I=\int_{r_1}^{r_2}\frac{dr}{r\sqrt{\Phi^2(r,r_1)-1}}$$ where $$\Phi(u,v)=\frac{u\exp{(-u)}}{v\exp{(-v)}}$$
The interval follows $\Phi(r_1,r_2)=1$, $r_1<r_2$.
I have found a solution to a special case (by applying perturbation method to the original ODE), which is $$\lim_{r_1\rightarrow r_2} I =\pi$$ When $r_1 \rightarrow r_2$, we have $r_1, r_2 \rightarrow r_0$, where $r_0$ is the peak position of $g(r)=r\exp{(-r)}$.
The numerical verification is shown below:
$\uparrow$ The interval of the integral and the integrand
$\uparrow$ The integral as a function of $r_2$
My problem is to derive a closed form for $I(r_1)$, or even just a Taylor expansion about $r_0$. I appreciate any hint.
Thanks!
If you are interested, here is the general form of the integral: $$I=\int_{r_1}^{r_2}\frac{dr}{r\sqrt{\Phi^2(r,r_1)-1}}$$ where $$\Phi(u,v)=\frac{u\exp{(k(u))}}{v\exp{(k(v))}}$$ and $k$ is a decreasing function. The interval follows $\Phi(r_1,r_2)=1$, $r_1<r_2$.
By solving the original ODE using perturbation method, the solution to a special case is $$\lim_{r_1\rightarrow r_2} I =\frac{\pi}{\sqrt{1+r_0 k''(r_0)/k'(r_0)}}$$
When $k(r)=-r$, it reduces to $\pi$.
In fact, $\lim_{r_1 \rightarrow r_2} I (k(r)=-C\cdot r^n) = \pi/\sqrt{n}$.
Thanks to Fabian, the second derivative at $r=1$ matches $I=\pi-\frac{\pi}{12}\epsilon^2+O(\epsilon^3)$:
$\uparrow$ The above is the numerical second order derivative of figure 2.