I'm hoping to make a generalization of the answer to this question. Let's say that instead that we're composing two uniformly continuous function sequences, does this composition converge uniformly to $f \circ g$.
Here's why I think it does.
Consider $\left( f _ { k } \right) _ { k = 1 } ^ { \infty }$ and $( g_k ) \stackrel { \infty } { k } = 1$ to be sequences of continuous functions $[ 0,1 ] \rightarrow [ 0,1 ]$ converging uniformly to $f$ and $g : [ 0,1 ] \rightarrow \mathbb { R }$ respectively.
By applying the Weierstrass M-Test, $ \exists \quad M > 0$ so that $|f_k(x)| \leq M \quad \forall x \in [0,1]$ and $k \in \mathbb{N}$
Now restrict the domain of $(g_k)$ to $[ - M , M ]$. Since the codomain of $(f_k)$ is $[0,1]$, this $[ - M , M ]$ will be within that domain. Therefore, there exists $N \in \mathbb{N}$ such that $(g_k)$ converges uniformly within this restricted domain.
Therefore
\begin{equation} \left\| g _ { k } ( f_k(x )) - g(f ( x )) \right\| < \varepsilon \text { for all } x \in S \text { and } k \geq N \end{equation} so $f _ { k } \circ g _ { k }$ converge uniformly to $f \circ g$.
Is it that simple, or am I missing something?