I am working on problems related to the closed graph of an unbounded operator. There is a proposition:
Let $X,Y$ be Banach spaces and let $A:\mathrm{dom}(A)\to Y$ be linear and defined on a linear subspace $\mathrm{dom}(A)\subset X$. Prove that the graph of $A$ is a closed subspace of $X\times Y$ if and only if $\mathrm{dom}(A)$ is Banach with respect to the graph norm.
I finished one direction. Suppose $\mathrm{graph}(A)$ is closed. We take any Cauchy sequence $x_n$ in $\mathrm{dom}(A)$, and since the norm is graph norm, we know $x_n$ and $Ax_n$ will both be Cauchy. Then we have a Cauchy sequence $(x_n,Ax_n)$ in the graph, so the pair converges to a certain $(x_0,y_0)$ since the graph is closed. Therefore $x_0\in\mathrm{dom}(A)$, which means that $\mathrm{dom}(A)$ is Banach.
However I encountered some trouble on the other direction. Suppose $\operatorname{dom}(A)$ is Banach with respect to the graph norm. If we take a Cauchy sequence $(x_n,Ax_n)$ in $\mathrm{graph}(A)$, since $X,Y$ are both Banach, it converges to a pair $(x_0,y_0)\in X\times Y$. Then we know $x_n$ converges to $x_0$ in the graph norm and so $x_0\in\mathrm{dom}(A)$, but this only tells $(x_0,Ax_0)\in X\times Y$. We still don't know whether $Ax_0=y_0$.