I am working through some problems in Durrett's probability book, and one of them involves a variant of the law of iterated logarithm.
I've managed to reduce the result to showing that
$$\sum_n \frac{1}{\log \log (n)}\exp(-\log \log(n)) < \infty$$
Using upperbounds for tail probabilities of standard normal. But, as I'm really not good with this stuff, I'm unsure how I am supposed to show this (if it's indeed true?).
Clearly without the exponential, the series would diverge since $\log (n) \leq n$. But, with the exponential it seems as though this could converge.
Could someone advise me how to complete this last step?