Given the definitions of Big-$O$ and Big-$\Omega$, I'd like to prove that $f(n) = \Theta(g(n))$ if and only if $f(n) = O(g(n))$ and $f(n) = \Omega(g(n))$.
Here's what I've come up with, but I'm not sure it's a rigorous proof, or even correct. I'm looking for comments on both the structure and style of my proof as well as correctness.
Proof by contradiction.
Suppose $f(n) = \Theta(g(n))$ and either $f(n) \ne O(g(n))$ or $f(n) \ne \Omega(g(n))$.
By the definition of $\Theta$,
$0 \le c_1 g(n) \le f(n) \le c_2 g(n)$
For some positive constants $c_1$, $c_2$, and $n > n_0$.
But it was given that $f(n) \ne O(g(n))$, which means there exist no positive constants $c$, $n_0$ such that for all $n>n_0$,
$0 \le f(n) \le c \cdot g(n)$
Which is a contradiction. $\blacksquare$