0
$\begingroup$

I want to determine $f(x) = x+\sin x$ is homeomorphic or not on $\mathbb{R}$?

A bijective continuous function is homeomorphic if its inverse is also continuous. I know that $f$ is bijective. Also $f$ is continuous being the sum of two continuous functions.

How to look for the continuity of $f^{-1}$.

$\endgroup$
5
  • $\begingroup$ Which properties? $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 22, 2018 at 18:32
  • $\begingroup$ continuity of both sides. $\endgroup$
    – PAMG
    Commented Nov 22, 2018 at 18:34
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ The statement follows from the inverse function theorem. $\endgroup$
    – freakish
    Commented Nov 22, 2018 at 18:38
  • $\begingroup$ @ José Carlos Santos see the edited part. $\endgroup$
    – PAMG
    Commented Nov 22, 2018 at 18:38
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ @freakish Not quite: the derivative vanishes at $x=(2k+1)\pi$, $k\in\mathbb Z$. $\endgroup$
    – Federico
    Commented Nov 22, 2018 at 18:42

2 Answers 2

1
$\begingroup$

The function $f$ is continuous and strictly increasing, because its derivative is $\ge0$ and is positive on the intervals $(\pi+2k\pi,\pi+2(k+1)\pi)$.

This its inverse function exists and is strictly increasing as well and defined over $\mathbb{R}$ because $f$ is neither upper nor lower bounded. In particular $f^{-1}$ has left and right limit at every point, because $$ \lim_{x\to c^-}f^{-1}(x)=\sup\{f(x):x<c\} \qquad \lim_{x\to c^+}f^{-1}(x)=\inf\{f(x):x>c\} $$ Suppose that at some point $c$ the two limits are different, say $$ \lim_{x\to c^-}f^{-1}(x)=\sup\{f(x):x<c\}=a \qquad \lim_{x\to c^+}f^{-1}(x)=\inf\{f(x):x>c\}=b $$ with $a<b$. Then $(a+b)/2$ doesn't belong to the codomain of $f^{-1}$, which is the domain of $f$. Contradiction.

$\endgroup$
1
$\begingroup$

Once you know that $f$ is strictly increasing, just use this.

If you want to know some regularity of $f^{-1}$, continue reading.

Let $N=\{(2k+1)\pi:k\in\mathbb Z\}$.

In $\mathbb R\setminus N$ you have $f'\neq 0$, so $f$ is actually a diffeomorphism. Now we have to investigate what happens near $N$. By translation, it is sufficient to examine what happens around $\pi$. By Taylor expansion, we have that for $\epsilon>0$ small enough $$ |f(x)-f(\pi)| = |x+\sin(x)-\pi| \geq \left|\frac{(x-\pi)^3}{12}\right| \qquad \forall x\in(\pi-\epsilon,\pi+\epsilon) $$ so the inverse $f^{-1}$ is $\tfrac13$-Holder near $\pi$.

$\endgroup$

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .