Let $f:\mathbb{R}^n \to \mathbb{R}^m$ be a function. We write $f=\left(f_1,\cdots,f_m\right)$, where $f_i:\mathbb{R}^n \to \mathbb{R}$.
Original Question : The problem from which I was motivated to ask this question is the following : Let $f:\mathbb{R}^2 \to \mathbb{R}^2$ be given by $f\left(x,y\right)=\left(\cos{x}+\cos{y},\,\sin{x}+\sin{y}\right)$. Is it true that $f \in C^1\left(\mathbb{R}^2\right)?$
The answer is obviously yes! But to establish that, if I understand it correctly, I have to do a hell lot of work. I have to compute jacobian matrix, check continuity of the entries, establish differentiability of $f$ and then check continuity of the total derivative. I was wondering if there's any easy formulation to verify $C^1$-ness.
Question : I want to know whether or not the following statement holds in general : $f \in C^1\left(\mathbb{R}^n\right)$ if and only if $f_i \in C^1\left(\mathbb{R}^n\right)$ for every $i=1,\cdots,n$. If yes, why? If not, is there any such (sufficient) condition at all?