Reading Atiyah-MacDonald: Introduction to Commutative Algebra, I found the following definition of subring:
A subset $S$ of a ring $A$ is a subring of $A$ if $S$ is closed under addition and multiplication and contains the identity element of $A$. The identity mapping of S into A is then a ring homomorphism.
I know this definition is "wrong", as on the question I linked below is said:
Concept of a subring in Atiyah-Macdonald's book
But my question is, what if we change our "classic" definition of subring by this other? For me, it seems that everything remains equal and, at least, in the context of rings, there is not any contradiction.
For example, the following property is still true:
If $f: A \rightarrow B$ is a ring homomorphism, then $\operatorname{im}(f) \subset B$ is a subring.
I can't find any problem with this redefinition of subring. It will be welcome any correction or comment. Thanks everyone!