Suppose some number $n \in \mathbb{N}$ is divisible by $144$.
$$\implies \frac{n}{144}=k, \space \space \space k \in \mathbb{Z} \\ \iff \frac{n}{36\cdot4}=k \iff \frac{n}{36}=4k$$
Since any whole number times a whole number is still a whole number, it follows that $n$ must also be divisible by $36$. However, what I think I have just shown is:
$$\text{A number }n \space \text{is divisble by} \space 144 \implies n \space \text{is divisible by} \space 36 \space (1)$$
Is that the same as saying: $$\text{For a number to be divisible by 144 it has to be divisible by 36} \space (2)$$
In other words, are statements (1) and (2) equivalent?