My lecturer omitted the proof in the lecture notes. From what I can gather, it's because equivalence classes partition always partition a set (the class can contain only that element or more and the elements in that class can only be in that one class so it acts as a partition). However, this, firstly, doesn't tell me why equivalence relations are the same thing as partitions and not equivalence classes, and to me it sounds like partitions cannot be arbitrary. From what I understood all they have to be are a collection of subsets $A_i$ forming some set $A$ such that:
- $A_i \ne \emptyset$
- $A_i \ \cap A_j = \emptyset , \ \ \ \text{if $j \ne i$}$
- $\bigcup _i A_i = A$
I don't see any of these rules demanding subtly there be an equivalence relation, and doing so sounds like it puts restrictions on the creation of a partition that I don't see in its definition. How are they equivalent?