# Does this count as a one way function?

So I was simply reading up on the P=NP problem and in the article it said that the existence of a one way function would imply that P does not equal to NP.

Of course I read up on it since it was interesting and the definition, at least from my gatherings, is that it is a function that is easily evaluated but not easily inverted roughly speaking.

Well I was mulling it over and I thought about something. Suppose I have a function f that I call a game, that maps natural numbers n to a set A which contains all possible positions the pieces on a chessboard may take.

Define a game to be a function that takes in the number of moves n as an input, and the state the chessboard is in as an output, and that the state of the board evaluated at input n can be legally reached in one move from the state evaluated at input n-1.

Obviously such a function is ‘easy’ to evaluate but given any possible state of a chessboard, there are a multitude of ways to reach it and thus it is definitely much more difficult to evaluate the number of moves required to reach it.

Does such a function count as a one way function?