Consider function $f\left(x\right)\:=\:\tan\left(3x-\pi \right)$. I know that $\tan$ is undefined at $\frac{\pi}{2}+\pi k,\:k\in\mathbb{Z}$. I solved $3x-\pi=\frac{\pi}{2}$, which means that $x$ must never be $\frac{\pi}{2}$.
However, the proposed solution for this problem is $\left\{x\in \mathbb{R}:x\:\text{is different from}\:\frac{\pi }{6}+\frac{k\pi }{3},\:k\in \mathbb{Z}\right\}$. I can't quite understand this conclusion.