Let $O$ be an open neighbourhood of $a\in \mathbb{R}$ and $V$ be an open neighbourhood of $a$ such that $\overline{V} \subset O$.
$V$ and $\mathbb{R} \setminus \overline{O}$ are disjoint (open) cozero-sets. I want to show that $V$ and $\mathbb{R}\setminus \overline{O}$ are completely separated. This question stems from my reading of Proposition 1.1 of
A.V. Arhangel'skii, Topological groups and $C$-embeddings, Top. Appl. vol.115, no.3 pp.265–289, doi:10.1016/S0166-8641(00)00073-0
I see several references to find a logical relation between open subset of space $X$ and completely separated sets, for example in Gillman and Jerison's Rings of continuous functions:
- Theorem. Two sets are completely separated if and only if they are contained in disjoint zero-sets.
- Urysohn's lemma. Any two disjoint closed sets in a normal space are completely separated.
But I can't find such a relation for this situation.
In answers to a previous question of mine, Brian M. Scott and Thomas E. explained that $A,B\subset X$ are completely separated iff their closures are.
How can I show that $V$ and $\mathbb{R}\backslash \overline{O}$ are completely separated?