My question is similar to this one here but a bit different.
I want to know the result of the following operation. I'm familiar with Leibnitz' rule but can't see how to extend it to this case. If it helps, assume that $f$ is a joint density such that at the limits $f(\pm \infty,y)=0,\forall y$. But I'd really like to know the entire formula. $$ \frac{\partial}{\partial x} \left( \int_{-\infty}^\infty \int_{-\infty}^{g(x)} f(x,y)dydx \right) = ?$$
Thanks!
edit: mmh, regarding the second answer below. that makes kind of sense. I need to be a bit more precise here. I'm trying to understand this equation from a paper. Sorry about the notation but that's what they use.
$$ P = \int_{x = -\infty}^\infty \int_{y = -\infty}^{x + a} dF(x,y) \\ = \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{\partial F(x,x+a)}{\partial x} dx$$ where $F$ is a joint cdf (so that $dF$ is a joint pdf). Maybe what I wrote above is actually irrelevant at best (and misleading at worst).