I'm trying to understand a claim I heard in class. To be concrete, suppose $X$ is a compact, hausdorff topological space, and let $C(X)$ be the space of continuous functions on $X$ with the supremum norm.
Now let $M(X)$ be the space of finite signed borel measures on $X$; $M(X)$ is isomorphic to $C(X)^*$; let's give $M(X)$ the topology of weak* convergence.
My question: what is the dual of $M(X)$ in the weak* topology? To be precise (or just to be redundant) I'm asking what the topological dual of $M(X)$ is, given that it has the topology of weak* convergence.
Clearly $M(X)^*$ in the total-variation-norm-topology is not just $C(X)$ (under the embedding $C(X) \rightarrow C(X)^{**}$), but the weak* topology on $M(X)$ is different; shouldn't the dual be different as well? Is it, in fact, merely $C(X)$ where the action is given by integration?