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The singular value decomposition of a complex-values $n\times m$ matrix $A$ is defined as

$$A = U \Sigma V^*$$

where $U$ and $V$ are unitary $n \times n$ matrices and $m \times m$ matrices respectively, and $Σ$ is an $n \times m$ rectangular diagonal matrix, whose diagonal elements are the singular values $\sigma _I$ of $A$. $V^*$ denotes the conjugate transpose of $V$. The singular value decomposition s a generalization of the eigen decomposition to arbitrary $n\times m$ matrices

I have attempted to solve the following question below. I am not sure if my proof is enough and I am looking for some guidance! thanks!

Verify that the left singular-vectors (the left columns of $U$) are the eigenvectors $AA^*,$that the right-singular vectors (the columns of $V$) are the eigenvectors of $A^*A$ and that the non-zero singular values of $A$ are the square roots of the non-zero eigenvalues of $AA^* and A^*A$

Here are my workings below!

$$A = U \Sigma V^T$$ $$AA^T = (U\Sigma V^T)(U\Sigma V^T)^T = U \Sigma V^TV\Sigma U^T = U\Sigma ^2U^T$$

The, the left singular vectors of $A$ (i.e columns of $U$) are the eigen vectors $AA^T$

The singular values of $A$ (i.e diagonal elements of $\Sigma$) are square-roots of the eigen values of $AA^T$

Next,

$$A^TA = (U \Sigma V^T)^T(U \Sigma V^T) = V \Sigma U^T U \Sigma V^T = V \Sigma ^2 V^T$$

Thus the right singular vectors of $A$(i.e columns of $V$) are the eigenvectors of $A^TA$.

The singular values of $A$ (i.e diagonal elements of $\Sigma$) are square roots of the eigenvalues of $A^TA$

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  • $\begingroup$ You need to account for the fact that $A$ is given as complex-valued. Transposition is not Hermite conjugation. What exactly is your definition of the SVD that these properties can be verified, that is, that they are not part of the definition? $\endgroup$ Oct 21, 2018 at 18:43
  • $\begingroup$ I am not sure this is all the info I have been given $\endgroup$
    – user104
    Oct 21, 2018 at 18:52
  • $\begingroup$ so my explanation is not correct? $\endgroup$
    – user104
    Oct 21, 2018 at 18:52
  • $\begingroup$ You need to recognize that $A^T$ is different from $A^*=\bar A^T$. For a purely real $A$ your explanation is correct. $\endgroup$ Oct 21, 2018 at 19:26
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    $\begingroup$ Yes, the formalism is the same. $\endgroup$ Oct 21, 2018 at 22:29

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