I've been trying to prove Fresnel integrals by real methods and encountered an interesting problem.
Let's start with the known result:
$$\int_0^\infty \sin y^2 dy = \sqrt{\frac{\pi}{8}}$$
Can we prove it without complex methods?
I have tried to do the following:
$$\int_0^\infty \sin y^2 dy =\frac{1}{2} \int_0^\infty \sin x \frac{dx}{\sqrt{x}} =\frac{1}{2} \sum_{n=0}^\infty (-1)^n \int_0^\pi \sin x \frac{dx}{\sqrt{x+\pi n}}$$
This directly follows from the properties of the sine, except the series only converges conditionally, not absolutely, so there's a question of if we can bring it inside the integral.
I will do it without proper justification for now, but if anyone has a comment on this, I would appreciate it.
So we obtain, after a simple change of variables:
$$\int_0^\infty \sin y^2 dy = \frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2} \int_0^1 \sin \pi t ~ dt \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n}{\sqrt{n+t}} $$
Wolfram gives for this series:
$$\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n}{\sqrt{n+t}}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\left( \zeta \left(\frac12, \frac{t}{2}\right)-\zeta \left(\frac12, \frac{t+1}{2}\right) \right)$$
Which is easy enough to show using the definition of Hurwitz zeta function.
Surprisingly enough, this brings us exactly the known value of the Fresnel integral as a coefficient:
$$\int_0^\infty \sin y^2 dy =\sqrt{\frac{\pi}{8}} \int_0^1 \sin \pi t ~ \left( \zeta \left(\frac12, \frac{t}{2}\right)-\zeta \left(\frac12, \frac{t+1}{2}\right) \right) dt$$
Which means that we need to prove the identity in the title of the question:
$$\int_0^1 \sin \pi t ~ \left( \zeta \left(\frac12, \frac{t}{2}\right)-\zeta \left(\frac12, \frac{t+1}{2}\right) \right) dt=1$$
Can we prove this by real methods, not using the Fresnel integral?
Mathematica confirms this identity numerically.