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Let $F$ is a function which maps objects and morphisms from one thin category $\mathcal C$ to another thin category $\mathcal D$. If the function preserve morphisms typing ($F$ associates to each morphism $f: X \to Y$ in $\mathcal C$ a morphism $F(f): F(X)\to F(Y)$ in $\mathcal D$), then

  1. $F$ also preserve identity morphisms and morphism composition and thus the function is a functor.
  2. $F$ is a full functor, because there is at most one morphism in each target Hom-set $\operatorname{Hom}_D(F(X),F(Y))$. And each of these morphisms is mapped from some source morphism.

If $F$ is injective on objects, then

  1. $F$ is a faithful functor, because there is at most one morphism in each source Hom-set. There is no distinct morphisms, which could be mapped to the same target morphism.

Are this statements right?

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  • $\begingroup$ I added a definition to the question. $\endgroup$
    – Denis
    Commented Oct 14, 2018 at 7:49

1 Answer 1

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Your statements 1 and 3 are correct, but note that you don't even need injectivity on objects to prove that your functor is faithful.

Your statement 2 is incorrect, however. For example, you could take $\mathcal{C}$ and $\mathcal{D}$ to be discrete categories, then if $X\neq Y$ are objects in $\mathcal{C}$ such that $F(X)=F(Y)$, you will have a morphism in $\mathcal{D}(F(X),F(Y))$ but none in $\mathcal{C}(X,Y)$, so in that case $F$ is not full.

In fact if you see your thin categories as preorders $(C,\leq_C )$ and $(D,\leq_D)$, then a functor is the same thing as a preorder-preserving map, i.e. a map such that $$x\leq_C y\Rightarrow f(x)\leq_D f(y)$$and a full functor is the same thing as a pre-order-preserving and preorder-reflecting map, i.e. a map $f$ such that $$x\leq_C y\Leftrightarrow f(x)\leq_D f(y).$$

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  • $\begingroup$ Could you please clarify the following point? Does injectivity of $F$ on objects implies that $F$ is a full functor? $\endgroup$
    – Denis
    Commented Oct 14, 2018 at 8:47
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    $\begingroup$ It does in my example with discrete categories, but not in general (perhaps I should have put another example). The simplest counterexample is to take $\mathcal{C}$ and $\mathcal{D}$ with the same two objects $X$ and $Y$, and : no arrows between them in $\mathcal{C}$; one arrow $X\to Y$ in $\mathcal{D}$. Then you have an inclusion functor $\mathcal{C}\to \mathcal{D}$ which is injective (the identity in fact) on objects but not full. $\endgroup$
    – Arnaud D.
    Commented Oct 14, 2018 at 9:03
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks a lot! Everything is clear now. $\endgroup$
    – Denis
    Commented Oct 14, 2018 at 9:40

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