I have a small question:

Can one state that $$f(x) = \frac{1}{x}$$ is a rational function because it is the quotient between a polynomial with degree 0 and a polynomial with degree 1?

Thank you.

  • 5
    $\begingroup$ Yes, this is the case. $\endgroup$ Oct 7, 2018 at 12:12
  • $\begingroup$ @HagenvonEitzen thank you my friend, I appreciate your answer. $\endgroup$
    – bru1987
    Oct 7, 2018 at 12:13

1 Answer 1


Yes, that is true.

The rational functions is the field of fractions of the ring of polynomials. $x$ is a polynomial, so $x^{-1}$ is in the field of fractions.


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