The book on abstract algebra that I'm reading uses the fact that, given the groups $G$ and $G'$ and a homomorphism $\phi:G \rightarrow G'$, then
$$ \operatorname{im}( \phi ) \cong G/\ker( \phi )$$
However the author doesn't provide a proof and simply states that it follows from "standard group theory". How could one prove the theorem above?
I would appreciate any help/thoughts!