Interesting Probability question. I have too proof that
\begin{align*} P(A \cup B \cup C) &= P(A) + P(B) + P(C) \\ &\quad - P(A \cap B) - P(B \cap C) - P(A \cap C) \\ &\quad + P(A \cap B \cap C). \end{align*}
Using probability introductory formulas and theorems. I understand fully when using the Venn diagram but I'm having trouble proving it mathematically.
I have tried the following but haven't been able to continue.
\begin{align*} P(A \cup B \cup C) &= P(A \cup (B \cup C) \tag{1} \\ &= P(A)+ P((B \cup C) \cap A')\tag{2} \\ &= P(A)+ P((B \cap A') \cup (C \cap A'))\tag{3} \\ &= P(A)+ P(B \cap A')+ P(C \cap A')\tag{4} \end{align*}
We also know that
\begin{align*} \begin{split} P(B)&=P(A \cap B)+P(B \cap A'), \\ P(C)&=P(A \cap C)+P(C \cap A'). \end{split} \tag{5} \end{align*}
Thus
\begin{align*} P(A \cup B \cup C) = P(A)+ P(B)- P(A \cap B)+ P(C)-P(C \cap B) \tag{6} \end{align*}
So I'm almost there but to complete the equation I'm still missing $-P(A \cap C)$ and $P(A \cap B \cap C)$.
I was thinking that $P(A \cup B \cup C)= 1- P(A' \cup B' \cup C')$ but I'm not sure how this is helpful.
Any help is appreciated.
Edit: I was also successful in proving $P(A \cup B)= P(A)+P(B)-P(A \cup B)$, and I'm trying to use the same techniques to proof this statement.