I am trying to understand the proof behind why Metropolis Hastings (MH) will result in a stationary distribution which is proportional to the distribution from which we wish to sample from.
Here is my understanding so far:
We can easily verify that MH algorithm is an ergodic Markov Chain, under certian regularity conditions. Let say, we wish to sample from a distribution $P(X)$, which we know upto a normalization constant. We can use a proposal distribution that $Q(X)$ to generate samples in each run and accept them based on the condition \begin{align}min(1, \frac{P(X')}{P(X)} * \frac{Q(X|X')}{Q(X'|X)}) \end{align}
Also we know that, all ergodic Markov Chains have a unique stationary distribution. Let us call this stationary distribution which we can observe towards the end of this markov chain as $\Pi(X)$. Now, the aim to show that $\Pi \propto P$.
One of the proofs I have read on the internet starts by assuming that we converged to $P$, then show that once the MH algorithm converges to P, it satisfies Detailed Balance equation and hence P is stationary. I feel it is not correct to start by assuming that $\Pi \propto P$, then it is stationary.
Another proof says that Detailed Balance is a necessary condition for a stationary distribution. Then, they were able to show - using the detailed balance equation - that if at all our MH algorithm (designed using this condition $min(1, \frac{P(X')}{P(X)} * \frac{Q(X|X')}{Q(X'|X)})$) converges to a stationary distribution, then $\Pi \propto P$. The only weak link in this proof is the necessary condition. Wikipedia says that Detailed balance is not a necessary condtion for stationary.
Can someone please give a rigorous proof why the stationary distribution will be $P(X)$
Thanks in advance,