Definition: Two lines are parallel if they are coplanar and everywhere equidistant.
Postulate 2: Through a point in a plane not on a line, one and only one line can be drawn parallel to that line.
Are parallel lines equal to each other, but there's some kind of disconnect I'm missing b/c they can't be one line?
So, I can't visualize this, and I feel he contradicts himself in Fact 3.
Fact 3: Parallelism is transitive: If $a \parallel b$ & $b \parallel c$, then $a \parallel c$.
(Fact 3 is why I questioned postulate 2 before reading fact 3 😅)
I probably need to read further, but if you can say something that might change my perspective, it'd be greatly appreciated. Thanks!