Although the title is the same as one in Suppose $X$ is infinite and $A$ is a finite subset of $X$. Then $X$ and $X \setminus A$ are equinumerous, but the proof is different. Hence it's not a duplicate.
Suppose $X$ is infinite and $A$ is a finite subset of $X$. Then $X$ and $X\setminus A$ are equinumerous
My attempt:
Lemma 1: If $A$ is finite and $B$ is countably infinite, then $A\cup B$ is countably infinite.
Lemma 2: If $X$ is infinite and $A$ is finite, then $X\setminus A$ is infinite.
Lemma 3: If $Y$ is infinite, then there exists $B\subsetneq Y$ such that $B$ is countably infinite. (Here we assume Axiom of Countable Choice)
Since $X$ is infinite and $A$ is finite, then $X\setminus A$ is infinite by Lemma 2.
Since $X\setminus A$ is infinite, there exists $B\subsetneq X\setminus A$ such that $B \sim \Bbb N$ by Lemma 3.
Since $A$ is finite and $B$ is countably infinite, then $A\cup B \sim \Bbb N$ by Lemma 1.
Since $B \sim \Bbb N$ and $A\cup B \sim \Bbb N$, $B \sim A\cup B$ and thus there exists an bijection $f_1:B \to A\cup B$.
Let $f_2:(X\setminus A)\setminus B \to (X\setminus A)\setminus B$ be the identity map on $(X\setminus A)\setminus B$. Then $f_2$ is a bijection.
We define $f:X\setminus A \to X$ by $f(x)=f_2(x)$ for all $x \in (X\setminus A)\setminus B$ and $f(x)=f_1(x)$ for all $x \in B$. Thus $f$ is a bijection.
Hence $X\setminus A \sim X$.
Does this proof look fine or contain gaps? Do you have suggestions? Many thanks for your dedicated help!