Evaluating $\lim_{x\to \infty}\Biggl(\dfrac{(x+1)^x}{x^x\cdot\mathcal{e}}\Biggr)^x$ I'm stuck in this problem where my answer is repeatedly resulting in1, which isn't correct, which is making me doubt my procedure. Please point out where I went wrong.
$$\lim_{x\to \infty}\Biggl(\dfrac{(x+1)^x}{x^x\cdot\mathcal{e}}\Biggr)^x=\lim_{x\to \infty}\dfrac{(1+\frac{1}{x})^{x^2}}{\mathcal{e}^x}=\lim_{x\to \infty}\dfrac{\mathcal{e}^{\frac{1}{x}\cdot x^2}}{\mathcal{e}^x}\text{$\Bigl(\because1^{\infty}$ form}\Bigr)$$
$$\lim_{x\to \infty}\dfrac{\mathcal{e}^{\frac{1}{x}\cdot x^2}}{\mathcal{e}^x}=1$$
That's my answer, but it is supposed to be $\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{\mathcal{e}}}$.
 A: The logarithm of your expression is
$$x^2\ln\left(1+\frac1x\right)-x
=x^2\left(\frac1x-\frac1{2x^2}+O(x^{-3})\right)-x
=-\frac12+O(x^{-1})\to-\frac12$$
as $x\to\infty$.
A: Here is an explanation why the OP was wrong.
Since$$(1+\frac{1}{x})= \mathcal{e}^{\frac{1}{x}}$$ is not true, therefore we can't be sure whether$$\lim_{x\to \infty}\dfrac{(1+\frac{1}{x})^{x^2}}{\mathcal{e}^x}=\lim_{x\to \infty}\dfrac{\mathcal{e}^{\frac{1}{x}\cdot x^2}}{\mathcal{e}^x}$$
is true or not.

Note: 

If we want to use the theorem

$$\lim_{x\to a}f(x)^{g(x)}=\mathcal{e}^{\lim_{x\to a}(f(x)-1)g(x)} \;\;\text{ if }\; f(a) \to 1 \;\;\text{ and } \;g(a) \to \infty$$

we have to write$$\lim_{x\to\infty}\dfrac{(1+\frac{1}{x})^{x^2}}{\mathcal{e}^x}=\lim_{x\to\infty}\left(\dfrac{1+\frac{1}{x}}{\mathcal{e}^{1/x}}\right)^{x^2}$$
instead of
$$\lim_{x\to \infty}\dfrac{(1+\frac{1}{x})^{x^2}}{\mathcal{e}^x}=\lim_{x\to \infty}\dfrac{\mathcal{e}^{\frac{1}{x}\cdot x^2}}{\mathcal{e}^x}.$$
A: A little more generally,
let
$f(a)
=\lim_{x\to \infty}\Biggl(\dfrac{(x+a)^x}{x^x\cdot\mathcal{e}}\Biggr)^x
$.
Then
$\begin{array}\\
g(a)
&=\ln(f(a))\\
&=\lim_{x\to \infty}x\ln\dfrac{(x+a)^x}{x^x\cdot\mathcal{e}}\\
&=\lim_{x\to \infty}x\left(\ln\dfrac{(x+a)^x}{x^x}-1\right)\\
&=\lim_{x\to \infty}\left(x\ln\dfrac{(x+a)^x}{x^x}-x\right)\\
&=\lim_{x\to \infty}\left(x^2\ln\dfrac{(x+a)}{x}-x\right)\\
&=\lim_{x\to \infty}\left(x^2\ln(1+\frac{a}{x})-x\right)\\
&=\lim_{x\to \infty}\left(x^2(\frac{a}{x}-\frac{a^2}{2x^2}+O(\frac1{x^3}))-x\right)\\
&=\lim_{x\to \infty}\left(ax-\frac{a^2}{2}+O(\frac1{x})-x\right)\\
&=\lim_{x\to \infty}\left((a-1)x-\frac{a^2}{2}+O(\frac1{x})\right)\\
\end{array}
$
If $a=1$
(as in this problem),
$g(1)
=-\frac12$.
If $a \ne 1$,
then
$\lim_{x \to \infty} (g(a)-(a-1)x)
=-\frac{a^2}{2}
$.
