I spent a lot of time yesterday trying to confirm to myself that
$$\frac{f(b) - f(a)}{b - a}$$
is the average rate of change of a function over $[a, b]$. I did this by first calculating this value, and then calculating $\dfrac{\Delta y}{\Delta x}$ by discretizing $\Delta x$ to a very small time step, and then taking the arithmetic mean of the results for every $\Delta y$.
Indeed, I proved to myself that given a small enough discretization they are equal within some acceptable tolerance.
This lead me to read more on the difference quotient and reminding me of my numerical analysis classes. This wikipedia article on the Mean of a Function shows an alleged equivalence between the difference quotient and the arithmetic mean but it uses an integral.
The arithmetic mean is defined:
$$\mu = \frac{1}{n}\sum \limits_{i = 0}^n x_i$$
How can I analytically prove to myself that
$$\mu = \frac{f(b) - f(a)}{b - a}?$$
I believe it intuitively due to my results above, but I would like to see it analytically because I'm legitimately curious at this result.