Lagrange's theorem states that for any finite group $G$, the order (number of elements) of every subgroup $H$ of $G$ divides the order of $G$ .......(1)
The converse of Lagrange's theorem is if $x$ divides order of $G$ ,then there exists a sub group of order $x$. ...... (2)
If my statement is $p\to q$ then converse is $q\to p$.
i couldn't understand how converse of Lagrange's theorem comes...please explain with this definition of converse : $p\to q$ then converse is $q\to p$