I am trying to understand the proof that every two norms on a finite dimensional NLS are equivalent.
I am working with this proof I found on the web: http://www.math.colostate.edu/~yzhou/course/math560_fall2011/norm_equiv.pdf
My first question is, do we always assume that the space is over $\mathbb{R}$ or $\mathbb{C}$ and not an arbitrary field?
Secondly, let $\Phi =\{\phi _1, \phi _2...,\phi _n\}$ be a basis for $H$, for $x\in H$ we have $x=\sum_{i}^na_{i}\phi _i$. I guess we are assuming $a_i\in \mathbb{R}$?
We then define $p(x)= \sqrt{\sum_{i}^na_{i}^2}$ We prove that $p(x)$ is a norm.
Now we want to show that every norm on $H$ is equivalent to $p(x)$. I wonder about the "easy" inequality, that it exists $M$ such that for $||.||$ an arbitrary norm $||x||\leq Mp(x)$. To prove this it is stated in every proof I have found that $||\sum_{i}^na_{i}\phi _i||\leq \sum_{i}^n||a_i||*||\phi _i||$, I don't understand this, $a_i$ is a scalar right, by the norm axiom $||a_i \phi _i ||=|a_i|*||\phi _i||$, hence strict equality?
Furthermore in the next sentence Cauchys inequality is used: $\sum_{i}^n||a_i||*||\phi _i||\leq \sqrt{\sum_{i}^n||a_i||}*\sqrt{\sum_{i}^n||\phi_i||}$
How can they assume that this arbitrary norm is associated to an innerproduct???
I wonder about the above two questions specifically.