I am having trouble finding the correct laws to use to prove the following.
$\lnot (p \land q) \land (p \lor \lnot q) \equiv \lnot q$
I understand DeMorgans Law of:
$ \lnot (p \land q) \equiv \lnot p \lor \lnot q$
Am I on the right track? Is DeMorgans Law relevant in this case? I am only just getting into Logical Equivalence etc.
All help is appreciated.