I'm working on the following problem from Conway V.4.
Let $X$ be compact and supppose there is a norm on $C(X)$ that is given by an inner product making $C(X)$ into a Hilbert space such that for every $x \in X$ the functional $\Lambda_x : f\mapsto f(x)$ is continuous with respect to the Hilbert space norm. Show $X$ is finite.
Idea on approach: I think we need to assume $X$ is infinite and come to some sort of contradiction.
Facts noted:
$\text{ball}{(C(X))}$ is weakly compact.
$X^* \subset C(X)$, $X^*$ is definitely a subspace, and if it is closed under the norm induced by the inner product we have $X^*$ is Hilbert and hence reflexive. (Since I am not sure of the closedness of $X^*$ under the norm, I am not sure if this could be useful.)
The hypothesis is allowing us to extend the notion of a weak-$*$ topology on $X^*$ to $C(X)$.
The continuity of the $\Lambda_x$'s and Riesz Rep theorem imply that there is a $g \in C(X)$ such that $\Lambda_x(f) = \langle f,g \rangle = |f(x)| \leq M \langle f,f\rangle^{1/2}$.
I'm not entirely sure how to put these pieces together. I was hoping to take a $X \supset \{x_n\}$ with $x_n \to x$, and by weak compactness we have for any sequence $\{f_j\} \subset \text{ball}(C(X))$ there is a subsequence such that $f_{j_k}$ converges weakly to some $f \in \text{ball}(C(X))$, which by our hypotheses implies that $f_{j_k}(x_n) \to f(x_n)$ as $k \to\infty$. We also know that $f_{j_k}(x_n) \to f_{j_k}(x)$ as $n\to \infty$. But there is nothing contradictory I can see coming from this observation. Any hints would be appreciated. Thanks.
Edit: Also not entirely sure how $X$ compact fits in exactly, as I don't think I've taken much advantage of that fact in my observations except for claiming there is a convergent sequence.