Could anyone tell me where I'm wrong with the following elementary calculation? Given a smooth Riemannian manifold $(M, g)$, I'd prove that if $\tilde{g}$ is conformally equivalent to $g$ (that is, $\tilde{g} = e^{2w}g$ for some smooth function $w$), then $\Delta_{\tilde{g}} = e^{-2w}\Delta_g$. Now, recalling that the Laplace-Beltrami operator $\Delta_g$ is defined as (or better, this is a possible definition)
$$\Delta_g:=g^{ij}\left(\frac{\partial^2}{\partial x_i \partial x_j} - \Gamma^k_{i j}\frac{\partial }{\partial x_k}\right).$$
With elementary calculations, I obtained (and I'm pretty sure that, at least this, is right...)
$$\tilde{\Gamma}^k_{ij} = \Gamma^k_{ij} - \left(\delta_{ik}\frac{\partial w}{\partial x_j} + \delta_{kj}\frac{\partial w}{\partial x_i} - g^{k\ell}g_{ij}\frac{\partial w}{\partial x_{\ell}}\right),$$
where $\tilde{\Gamma}^k_{ij}$ are the Christoffel's symbols of the Levi-Civita's connection associated to the metric $\tilde{g}$ and $\delta_{ij}$ is the Kronecker's $\delta$. At this point, I have
$$ \Delta_{\tilde{g}} = e^{-2w}\Delta_g + e^{-2w}g^{ij}\left(\delta_{ik}\frac{\partial w}{\partial x_j} + \delta_{kj}\frac{\partial w}{\partial x_i} - g^{k\ell}g_{ij}\frac{\partial w}{\partial x_{\ell}}\right)\frac{\partial}{\partial x_k} $$
But
$$ g^{ij}\delta_{ki}\frac{\partial w}{\partial x_j}\frac{\partial }{\partial x_k} = g^{ij}\frac{\partial w}{x_j}\frac{\partial }{\partial x_i}, $$
$$ g^{ij}\delta_{kj}\frac{\partial w}{\partial x_i} \frac{\partial }{\partial x_k} = g^{ij}\frac{\partial w}{\partial x_i}\frac{\partial}{\partial x_j} \stackrel{i \leftrightarrow j}{=} g^{ji}\frac{\partial w}{\partial x_j}\frac{\partial}{\partial x_i} \stackrel{g^{ji} = g^{ij}}{=} g^{ij}\frac{\partial w}{\partial x_j}\frac{\partial}{\partial x_i}, $$
$$ \underbrace{g^{ij}g_{ij}}_{= g^{ij}g_{ji} = 1} g^{k\ell} \frac{\partial w}{\partial x_{\ell}}\frac{\partial }{\partial x_k} = g^{i j}\frac{\partial w}{\partial x_j}\frac{\partial }{\partial x_i}. $$
That is, one the last terms seems survive. Where am I wrong?