The space of bounded continuous functions from some space to a complete metric space is complete. Now, if we consider the sequence $\lbrace f_n(x)=x^n \mid f_n \colon [0,1]\to [0,1] \rbrace_n^{\infty}$, then $f_n$ is continuous and bounded for all $n$, and converges to a discontinuous function. Since $\lbrace f_n \rbrace$ converges, it is Cauchy. But $\{f_n\}\subset B_C(\mathbb{R})$ (where $B_C (X)$ is the space of bounded continuous functions from $X$ to $X$). How does that comply with the fact that $B_C(\mathbb{R})$ is complete?
Clearly, I'm missing something here. I'd appreciate an explanation. Thanks.