For a function $f(x)$ the definition of its derivative is $$f'(x) = \lim \limits_{\Delta x \to 0} \frac{f(x+\Delta x)-f(x)}{\Delta x}.$$
The derivative $f'(x)$ is supposed to be the same for $\Delta x>0$ and $\Delta x<0$. Which means that if we now set $\Delta x>0$, $$\lim \limits_{\Delta x \to 0} \frac{f(x+\Delta x)-f(x)}{\Delta x}=\lim \limits_{\Delta x \to 0} \frac{f(x-\Delta x)-f(x)}{-\Delta x}$$ needs to be true.
But how do you show that the above expression is true?
I thought of the example where $f(x)=e^x$, and let $\Delta x=3$. At the point $x=0$, $$\frac{f(x+\Delta x)-f(x)}{\Delta x}=\frac{e^3-1}{3}$$and$$\frac{f(x-\Delta x)-f(x)}{-\Delta x}=\frac{e^{-3}-1}{-3}.$$ They are not equal and intuitively I thought that as $\Delta x \to 0$, they will approximately equal to each other but never exactly equal, since the graph of $f(x)=e^x$ is not symmetrical about $x=0$.
Is the statement that the derivative is independent of the sign of $\Delta x$, ie the statement $$\lim \limits_{\Delta x \to 0} \frac{f(x+\Delta x)-f(x)}{\Delta x}=\lim \limits_{\Delta x \to 0} \frac{f(x-\Delta x)-f(x)}{-\Delta x}$$ just an approximation then?