The exercise says:
Knowing the next succession,
$$a_1=1$$ $$a_{n+1}=\frac{2a_n}{(2n+2)(2n+1)}, n>=1$$
Prove by induction that $a_n=\frac{2^n}{(2n)!}$
What I've done so far is prove for $n=1$
For $n=1$:
$$a_1=\frac{2^1}{(2\times1)!}=\frac{2}{2}=1$$ Which is correct.
Therefore, to prove the induction:
$$a_{n+1}=\frac{2\times a_{n+1}}{(2(n+1)+2)(2n+1)}=$$ $$=\frac{2}{(2(n+1)+2)(2n+1)}\frac{2^{n+1}}{(2(n+1))!}=$$ $$=\frac{2^{n+2}}{(2n+4)(2n+3)}\times\frac{1}{(2(n+1))!}=$$ $$=\frac{2^{n+2}}{4n^2+6n+18n+12}=$$ $$=\frac{2^{n+2}}{4n^2+24n+12}=$$ $$=\frac{2\times2^{n+1}}{2(2n^2+12n+6)}=$$ $$=\frac{2^{n+1}}{2n^2+12n+6}$$
Is this correct? Do I have to simplify even more?
Thanks