# Why does this statement hold?

I have seen the following statement:

Let $G\subset \mathbb{R}^n$ be open, bounded and $f:\overline{G}\rightarrow \mathbb{R}^n$ a continuous and open map. Then $\|f\|$ gets its maximum on the boundary of $G$.

Why does this holds? Could you explain this to me?

I suppose that you mean that $f|_G$ is open.
If the maximum was attained at a point $p$ ouside the boundary, then $p$ would belong to $G$. But, since $f|_G$ is open, the range of $f$ must contain an open ball centered at $p$, contradicting the assumption about the maximum.
• Do you mean that it should be $f|_G:\overline{G}\rightarrow \mathbb{R}^n$ ? Or do you mean $f|_G:G\rightarrow \mathbb{R}^n$ or something else?If the maximum is attained at $p$ why is it not possible that there exists an open ball centered at $p$ ? I got stuck right now. – Mary Star Jun 17 '18 at 18:52
• @MaryStar I mean that $f$ is continuous and that $f|_G$ is open. And if the range of $f$ contains an open ball of radius $r$ centered at $f(p)$, then there will be points $q$ such that $\|f(q)\|\in(\|f(p)\|,\|f(p)\|+r)$. In particular, $\|f(q)\|>\|f(p)\|$. – José Carlos Santos Jun 17 '18 at 19:05