First note that for any $y>0$
$$\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{y}{\pi(x^2+y^2)}\,dx=1$$
So, it suffices to show that
$$\lim_{y\to 0^+}\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{y(f(x)-f(0))}{\pi(x^2+y^2)}\,dx=0$$
Given $\epsilon>0$, fix a number $\delta>0$ such that $|f(x)-f(0)|<\epsilon$ for $|x|<\delta$.
With this fixed $\delta$, we write for $y>0$
$$\begin{align}
\left|\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{y(f(x)-f(0))}{\pi(x^2+y^2)}\,dx\right|&\le\left|\int_{|x|\le \delta} \frac{y(f(x)-f(0))}{\pi(x^2+y^2)}\,dx\right|+\left|\int_{|x|\ge\delta} \frac{y(f(x)-f(0))}{\pi(x^2+y^2)}\,dx\right|\\\\
&\le \int_{|x|\le \delta} \frac{y\left|f(x)-f(0)\right|}{\pi(x^2+y^2)}\,dx+ \int_{|x|\ge \delta} \frac{y\left|f(x)-f(0)\right|}{\pi(x^2+y^2)}\,dx\\\\
&\le \frac{2\epsilon}\pi \arctan(\delta/y)+\frac{2\sup_{|x|\ge\delta }(f(x))}\pi \left(\pi/2-\arctan(\delta/y)\right)\tag 1
\end{align}$$
Letting $y\to 0^+$ in $(1)$, we find that for any given $\epsilon>0$,
$$\lim_{y\to 0^+}\left|\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{y(f(x)-f(0))}{\pi(x^2+y^2)}\,dx\right|\le \epsilon$$
And we are done!