I recently stumbled upon the following article:
This article claims to prove that the values of the Riemann Zeta function at all odd positive integers are irrational. Last time I checked, this problem was categorized as "near to impossible with the current state of number theory". Naturally, I am a bit skeptic on whether this proof is correct. However, I do not have the time (or more precisely the required skill) to verify the proof by myself.
Is the proof in the above paper correct?