0
$\begingroup$

Euler's equation for the motion of incompressible fluid of velocity $v(x,y,z,t)$, pressure $P(x,y,z,t)$ and density $\rho(x,y,z,t)$ is $$\frac{\partial v}{\partial t}+(v.\nabla)v=-\frac{1}{\rho}\nabla P+g$$ where $g$ is the acceleration due to gravity,

I want to use the identity $(\nabla \times A)\times A=(A.\nabla)A-\frac{1}{2}\nabla(A.A)$

to show that for a steady flow, Euler's equation reduces to $$(\nabla \times v)\times v=-\frac{1}{\rho}\nabla P-\frac{1}{2}\nabla v^{2}+g$$

so in a steady flow $$\frac{\partial v}{\partial t}=0,(v.\nabla)v=0$$, thus letting $v=A$ we get that $$0=-\frac{1}{\rho}\nabla P+g$$ and $$(\nabla \times v)\times v+\frac{1}{2}\nabla(v^{2})=-\frac{1}{\rho}\nabla P+g$$ rearraging this, we get that $$(\nabla \times v)\times v=-\frac{1}{\rho}\nabla P-\frac{1}{2}\nabla v^{2}+g$$ as required. Is this correct?

$\endgroup$

1 Answer 1

1
$\begingroup$

In steady flow you will just have :

$$\frac{\partial v}{\partial t}=0 $$

You haven't spatial homogenity.

Calculus is correct as you have the identity.

$\endgroup$
4
  • $\begingroup$ Ahh okay thanks, what will happen to the $(v.\nabla)v$ term? $\endgroup$
    – Gibberish
    Commented May 23, 2018 at 18:54
  • $\begingroup$ You just have $$ \dfrac{\overrightarrow{\rm grad}(v^2)}{2} - (\nabla\times v)\times v = (v . \nabla)v $$ $\endgroup$
    – Pagode
    Commented May 23, 2018 at 19:15
  • $\begingroup$ So for irrotational flow you kick the second term. $\endgroup$
    – Pagode
    Commented May 23, 2018 at 19:16
  • $\begingroup$ And for linear flow (high viscous) you kick your terms. $\endgroup$
    – Pagode
    Commented May 23, 2018 at 19:18

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .