# Is this integral $\int_0^\infty\frac{\cos(a x+ 2b \arctan x)}{x^2+1}dx$ exactly zero when $b\in\mathbb{N}$?

I recently encountered this integral $$\int_0^\infty\frac{\cos(a x+ 2b \arctan x)}{x^2+1}dx$$ which suspiciously close to 0 for nonzero integer values of $b$, as indicated by numerical calculations. When $b$ is not an integer it is not 0. Based on my experiments I conjecture that $$\int_0^\infty\frac{\cos(a x+ 2b \arctan x)}{x^2+1}dx=0,~~~~b\in \mathbb{Z}\setminus \{0\}.$$

Question. Is the above conjecture true?

• So did you apply $cos(A+B)$? May 22, 2018 at 14:14
• @Mason and then what? There will be a sum of 2 integrals that doesn't seem to be easier to handle. May 22, 2018 at 14:15
• Also I am not sure that contour-integration is an appropriate tag. May 22, 2018 at 14:16
• If we take $u=\arctan(x)$ Then we have $\int_0^{\pi/2} cos(a \tan(u)+bu) du$ where $a \tan$ means $a \times \tan()$ May 22, 2018 at 14:40
• It must be $2bu$, but else the transformation is correct. I have tried different values for $a$ and $b$ via WolframAlpha, and it always (and quickly!) yields $0$ if $b$ is an integer, so I suppose there must indeed be some transformation to simplify the integral. May 22, 2018 at 15:04

This can, as the author suspected, be approached by contour integration.

Let $a>0$ and $n\in\mathbb{Z}$. As Mason pointed out, the integral in question is equal to $$\int_0^{\pi/2}\cos(a\tan(x)+2nx)dx$$ Using that the integrand is even we may extend the bounds to $(-\pi/2,\pi/2)$ then perform the substitution $t=2x$ to find this is $$\frac{1}{4}\int_{-\pi}^\pi \cos(a\tan(t/2)+nt)dt$$ Notice that this is is equal to $$\frac{1}{4}\int_{-\pi}^\pi \exp(ia\tan(t/2)+int)dt$$ since the odd part of $e^{ix}=\cos(x)+i\sin(x)$ cancels. Now by expanding the tangent in terms of exponentials and performing some algebra we find $$\tan(t/2)=\frac{1}{i}\frac{e^{it}-1}{e^{it}+1}$$ Thus we may rewrite our integral as a contour integral with $z=e^{i t}$, $dt=\frac{1}{iz}dz$. Since our bounds are $t\in(-\pi,\pi)$, the contour is the unit circle. Thus our integral is $$\frac{1}{4i}\oint \exp(a\frac{z-1}{z+1})z^{n-1}dz$$ (Notice $e^{int}=z^n$.) By the Residue Theorem, this contour integral is equal to $$\frac{\pi}{2}\text{ Res}_{z=0} \exp(a\frac{z-1}{z+1})z^{n-1}$$ This residue is the coefficient of $z^{-n}$ in $\exp(a\frac{z-1}{z+1})$. Since this function is analytic inside the unit disk, this coefficient is $0$ for $n>0$ (with $n\in\mathbb{Z}$). The value of the integral for negative integral $n$ is given by the $|n|$th Taylor coefficient of $\frac{\pi}{2}\exp(a\frac{z-1}{z+1})$.

• Well done. Note that if $a$ and $n$ are negative, we can return to positive values of both because $\cos(-x)=cos(x)$. May 23, 2018 at 9:37

Maybe not a full answer, but part of the way:

Let $a=0$. Then we have

$$\int_0^\infty\frac{\cos(0+ 2b \arctan x)}{x^2+1}dx=\left[\frac{\sin\left(2b \arctan(x)\right)}{2b}\right]_0^\infty\\ =\frac{\sin\left(2b\cdot\frac{\pi}{2}\right)}{2b}-\frac{\sin(2b\cdot0)}{2b}\\ = \frac{\sin(b\pi)}{2b}$$

This is obviously zero if and only if b is an integer (except zero).

Currently I am not fully aware why this behavior remains when $a\neq0$, maybe I find a solution for that later on.

• I'd like to point out that: only when the sign of $a$ and $b$ are the same can the conjecture be true. For example this is not zero but this is zero. May 22, 2018 at 18:24

Assume that $$a > 0$$ and that $$n$$ is a positive integer.

Then we have

\begin{align}\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\cos \left(ax + 2 n \arctan x \right)}{1+x^{2}} \, \mathrm dx &= \frac{1}{2} \, \Re \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{\exp \left(iax + i2n \arctan x \right)}{1+x^{2}} \, \mathrm dx \\ &= \frac{1}{2} \, \Re \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{iax} \, \frac{ \exp \left(n \log(1+ix) - n\log(1-ix) \right)}{1+x^{2}} \, \mathrm dx \\ &= \frac{1}{2} \, \Re \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{iax} \, \frac{(1+ix)^{n}}{(1-ix)^{n}(1+x^{2})} \, \mathrm dx \\ &= \frac{1}{2} \, \Re \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{iax} \, \frac{(1+ix)^{n-1}}{(1-ix)^{n+1}} \, \mathrm dx. \end{align}

But the integrand is analytic in the upper half of the complex plane, and by Jordan's lemma (or the estimation lemma) the integral $$\int_{R\exp(i[0, \pi])} e^{iaz} \, \frac{(1+iz)^{n-1}}{(1-iz)^{n+1}} \, \mathrm dz$$ vanishes as $$R \to \infty$$.

Therefore, $$\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\cos \left(ax + 2 n \arctan x \right)}{1+x^{2}} \, \mathrm dx =0.$$