I am reading a paper and trying to understand how authors have come up with the certain equation.
I understand the log-normal distribution and the relation to the normal distribution. But cannot understand the following simple derivation. (Another question is why have authors taken CCDF here?)
The following is the exact excerpt from the paper.
The shadowing effect is modeled by a log-normal random variable H. In other words, $10 \log H$ is a Gaussian r.v. with standard deviation $\sigma$. Let $f_H$ be the PDF (Probability Density Function) of $H$, and $F_H$ is the complementary CDF of $H$.