For $2 \times 2$ matrices $A = \begin{pmatrix} a_{11} & a_{12}\\ a_{21} & a_{22} \end{pmatrix}$ prove that: If row-vectors of $A$ are linearly dependent, then $\det(A)=0$
I'm not sure how to do this correct. I would start by calculating its determinant:
$\det(A)=a_{11}a_{22} - a_{21}a_{12}$
Now let $\det(A)=0$
Then $0=a_{11}a_{22} - a_{21}a_{12} \Leftrightarrow a_{11}a_{22}=a_{21}a_{12}$
So we have $a_{11}=\frac{a_{21}a_{12}}{a_{22}}; \,\,\,\ a_{12}=\frac{a_{11}a_{22}}{a_{21}};\,\,\,\, a_{21}=\frac{a_{11}a_{22}}{a_{12}};\,\,\,\ a_{22}=\frac{a_{21}a_{12}}{a_{11}}$
If we write this as a matrix, we have $$\begin{pmatrix} \frac{a_{21}a_{12}}{a_{22}} & \frac{a_{11}a_{22}}{a_{21}}\\ \frac{a_{11}a_{22}}{a_{12}} & \frac{a_{21}a_{12}}{a_{11}} \end{pmatrix}$$
But now I have a problem, I don't know how to continue :s
On paper I have created following linear system:
$$\text{I}: \lambda_1 \frac{a_{21}a_{12}}{a_{22}} + \lambda_2 \frac{a_{11}a_{22}}{a_{21}} = 0$$
$$\text{II}: \lambda_1 \frac{a_{11}a_{22}}{a_{12}} + \lambda_2 \frac{a_{21}a_{12}}{a_{11}}=0$$
I have tried to form for $\lambda_1$ and $\lambda_2$ hoping that both will be equal to zero so that I had linearly dependent row-vectors but no..
Is there maybe a better way of doing this or is my attempt completely wrong? How you do it good?